If the current economic processes generating high inequality also help increase the future income growth of the rich, the question may be asked: why would the rich accept a policy that would slow their future income growth and thereby reduce their share of the pie? Is there a ‘public interest’ or a democratic (majoritarian) pressure that might convince the rich to accept such a policy change? Or are we just back to the observation made by Plato 24 centuries ago that communities with large inequalities “are not so much a single state as a collection of states”?